Was it possible for Britishers?

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AS I Said in another thread I am reading it again and again That britishers wanted to give sikhs a poltical feet but sikhs themselves refused it.But to be honest was It really possible for them to give sikhs some districts of Punjab when the truth is that there was not even a sikh majority district in Punjab
Land in this era is distribuited solely on the basis of numbers and not on History or anything else,so if someone uses common sense then he/she can easily come to conclusion That It was possible for Britishers to give any area to sikhs because sikhs were not at all in majority


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